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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 02:17

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Is there a band whose members have been present for every one of their concerts?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Are today’s baseball pitchers faster than a few years ago, or is it that radar guns have improved and get the pitch speed as it is released rather than as it reaches the plate?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Is Daenerys Targaryen really the most beautiful woman, or is everyone saying that just to flatter her?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.